Let's have a touch of realism and understanding of these deals.
If I bought a house for ten pounds and it had no debt with it - house costs ten pounds.
if I bought a house for ten pounds but had to take on a ten pounds mortgage (ie, the owners debt), - house costs £20.
If we are being realistic then.......
If the house is sold unencumbered by a mortgage then you exchange £10 cash for £10 freehold/leasehold house
debit Fixed assets credit cash
If the house has 100%(or less) mortgage on it then under terms of any mortgage I have seen the charge stipulates that the loan has first claim on any sale proceeds. Therefore in the transaction the £10 mortgage is cleared and never taken on by the purchaser
purchaser Debit fixed assets credit cash - net effect nil
seller debit mortgage credit fixed assets - net effect nil
Now the purchaser may need to borrow in the first place in order to buy the house as is usual. This is a new loan and new security that is usually secured on the new property in the name of the purchaser
Purchaser Debit cash credit loan..... followed by debit Fixed asset credit cash ...... leaving an asset and a liability of equal value on the balance sheet.
Seller Debit mortgage credit fixed assets
At no point in any of those scenarios does the house cost £20. The sale price is £10 and the purchase price is £10.
none of the above actually represents what has happened however
We are not talking about the conveyance of a freehold or leasehold property. We are talking about the sale of shares whose value are in part made up of the loan and other liabilities (which reduces the value) and the assets which increase the value. In addition the value of those shares is influenced by such things as other contingent liabilities, the value of future orders or income streams, an assessment of goodwill if any and yes the potential for attracting future sponsorship even